Information Security Project Development
Resume:
Title : CompTIA Security+
Certification Exam
Vendor : CompTIA
Version : V14.35
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NO.1 Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Select two).
A. Ease of recovery
B. Ability to patch
C. Physical isolation
D. Responsiveness
E. Attack surface
F. Extensible authentication
Answer: A E
Explanation:
A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface. Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any network issue on the organization's operations and reputation. Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high- availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization, firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps in the network security.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4: Architecture and Design, pages 164-1651. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Architecture and Design, pages 164-1652.
NO.2 A company needs to provide administrative access to internal resources while minimizing the traffic allowed through the security boundary. Which of the following methods is most secure? A. Implementing a bastion host
B. Deploying a perimeter network
C. Installing a WAF
D. Utilizing single sign-on
Answer: A
Explanation:
A bastion host is a special-purpose server that is designed to withstand attacks and provide secure access to internal resources. A bastion host is usually placed on the edge of a network, acting as a gateway or proxy to the internal network. A bastion host can be configured to allow only certain types of traffic, such as SSH or HTTP, and block all other traffic. A bastion host can also run security software such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and antivirus programs to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A bastion host can provide administrative access to internal resources by requiring strong authentication and encryption, and by logging all activities for auditing IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way!
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purposes12.
A bastion host is the most secure method among the given options because it minimizes the traffic allowed through the security boundary and provides a single point of control and defense. A bastion host can also isolate the internal network from direct exposure to the internet or other untrusted networks, reducing the attack surface and the risk of compromise3. Deploying a perimeter network is not the correct answer, because a perimeter network is a network segment that separates the internal network from the external network. A perimeter network usually hosts public-facing services such as web servers, email servers, or DNS servers that need to be accessible from the internet. A perimeter network does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from unauthorized access. A perimeter network can also increase the complexity and cost of network management and security4. Installing a WAF is not the correct answer, because a WAF is a security tool that protects web applications from common web-based attacks by monitoring, filtering, and blocking HTTP traffic. A WAF can prevent attacks such as cross-site scripting, SQL injection, or file inclusion, among others. A WAF does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from web application vulnerabilities. A WAF is also not a comprehensive solution for network security, as it only operates at the application layer and does not protect against other types of attacks or threats5. Utilizing single sign-on is not the correct answer, because single sign-on is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple sites, services, or applications with one username and password. Single sign-on can simplify the sign-in process for users and reduce the number of passwords they have to remember and manage. Single sign-on does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather enables access to various resources that the user is authorized to use. Single sign-on can also introduce security risks if the user's credentials are compromised or if the single sign- on provider is breached6. References = 1: Bastion host
- Wikipedia, 2: 14 Best Practices to Secure SSH Bastion Host - goteleport.com, 3: The Importance O f Bastion Hosts In Network Security, 4: What is the network perimeter? Cloudflare, 5: What is a WAF? Web Application Firewall explained, 6: [What is single sign-on (SSO)? - Definition from WhatIs.com]
NO.3 A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to complete the disposal.
Which of the following should the company request from the vendor? A. Certification
B. Inventory list
C. Classification
D. Proof of ownership
Answer: A
Explanation:
The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company's policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441
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NO.4 A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure.
Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data? A. Private
B. Critical
C. Sensitive
D. Public
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four- tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical. Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization's operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30. NO.5 Which of the following is used to protect a computer from viruses, malware, and Trojans being installed and moving laterally across the network? A. IDS
B. ACL
C. EDR
D. NAC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. EDR can help to detect and prevent malicious software, such as viruses, malware, and Trojans, from infecting the IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way!
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endpoints and spreading across the network. EDR can also provide visibility and response capabilities to contain and remediate threats. EDR is different from IDS, which is a network-based technology that monitors and alerts on network traffic anomalies. EDR is also different from ACL, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources. EDR is also different from NAC, which is a technology that enforces policies on the network access of devices based on their identity and compliance status. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 2561
NO.6 During a security incident, the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address:
10.1.4.9. A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization's network. Which of the following fulfills this request? A. access-list inbound deny ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32 B. access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0 C. access-list inbound permit ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0 D. access-list inbound permit ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32 Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization's network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any
(or ig for IP), the source address should be
10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any. Therefore, the correct firewall rule is: access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0 This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action, the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination addresses reversed. References = Firewall Rules - CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2, Firewalls - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+
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3.3, Firewalls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501, Understanding Firewall Rules - CompTIA Network+ N1 0-005: 5.5, Configuring Windows Firewall - CompTIA A+ 220-1102 - 1.6. NO.7 During an investigation, an incident response team attempts to understand the source of an incident. Which of the following incident response activities describes this process? A. Analysis
B. Lessons learned
C. Detection
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D. Containment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Analysis is the incident response activity that describes the process of understanding the source of an incident.
Analysis involves collecting and examining evidence, identifying the root cause, determining the scope and impact, and assessing the threat actor's motives and capabilities. Analysis helps the incident response team to formulate an appropriate response strategy, as well as to prevent or mitigate future incidents. Analysis is usually performed after detection and before containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.
References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 223. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.2, page 13. NO.8 A network manager wants to protect the company's VPN by implementing multifactor authentication that uses:
. Something you know
. Something you have
. Something you are
Which of the following would accomplish the manager's goal? A. Domain name, PKI, GeolP lookup
B. VPN IP address, company ID, facial structure
C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint
D. Company URL, TLS certificate, home address
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager's goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.
* Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a security question. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12
* Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12
* Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user's identity to access a VPN12 References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, page 177 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, page 179
NO.9 Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?
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A. Automation
B. Compliance checklist
C. Attestation
D. Manual audit
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs.
Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.
The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:
* Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.
* Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4.
* Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-70 1 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98.
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. NO.10 A company has begun labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. Which of the following security benefits do these actions provide? (Choose two.) A. If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. F. Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. Answer: A F
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Explanation:
Labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs can provide several security benefits for a company. Two of these benefits are:
* A: If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. An asset inventory sticker is a label that contains a unique identifier for a laptop, such as a serial number, a barcode, or a QR code. By associating this identifier with an employee ID, the security team can easily track and locate the owner of the laptop in case of a security incident, such as a malware infection, a data breach, or a theft. This way, the security team can notify the correct employee about the incident, and provide them with the necessary instructions or actions to take, such as changing passwords, scanning for viruses, or reporting the loss. This can help to contain the incident, minimize the damage, and prevent further escalation.
* F: Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. When an employee leaves the organization, the company needs to ensure that all the company data and assets are returned or deleted from the employee's laptop. By labeling the laptop with an asset inventory sticker and associating it with an employee ID, the company can easily identify and verify the laptop that belongs to the departing employee, and perform the appropriate data backup, wipe, or transfer procedures. This can help to protect the company data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the former employee or any other party. The other options are not correct because they are not related to the security benefits of labeling laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. User awareness training is a type of security education that aims to improve the knowledge and behavior of users regarding security threats and best practices. The security team can send user awareness training to the appropriate device by using the email address, username, or IP address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. Software MFA tokens are a type of multi-factor authentication that uses a software application to generate a one-time password or a push notification for verifying the identity of a user. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens by using the device ID, phone number, or email address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. User-based firewall policies are a type of firewall rules that apply to specific users or groups of users, regardless of the device or location they use to access the network. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops by using the username, domain, or certificate of the user, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on a network or system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops by using the IP address, hostname, or MAC address of the laptop, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 17. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.4: Asset Management, video: Asset Inventory (6:12). NO.11 A user is attempting to patch a critical system, but the patch fails to transfer. Which of the following access controls is most likely inhibiting the transfer? A. Attribute-based
B. Time of day
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C. Role-based
D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 931 NO.12 An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
A. NGFW
B. WAF
C. TLS
D. SD-WAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.3, Web Application Firewalls - CompTIA Securit y+ SY0-701 - 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0
-701, 9th Edition]
NO.13 A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal? A. Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
B. Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers C. Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
D. Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way!
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373
NO.14 A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:
* Provide a secure zone.
* Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
* Reduce the scope of threats.
Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up? A. Zero Trust
B. AAA
C. Non-repudiation
D. CIA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface. References:
* 5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models.
* 8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.
NO.15 An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users' passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future? A. Multifactor authentication
B. Permissions assignment
C. Access management
D. Password complexity
Answer: A
Explanation:
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The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user's password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user's role or identity. Access management is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1
* Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2
* Multi-factor Authentication - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43
* TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4
* CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2:
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